Let's Prepare Microsoft 70-778 Exam - 100% Success Guaranteed With Actual Questions

The Microsoft Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI (beta) exam 70-778 is a minute assessment of 58 questions. Likewise, the Microsoft 70-778 MCSA: BI Reporting certification exam verifies the candidate's acquaintance and core understanding with the Microsoft Excel. This exam is associated with the MCSA: BI Reporting Certification. Exam helps you to upgrade credential, as the content is aligned with the exam topics;

• Consume and Transform Data By Using Power BI Desktop,
• Model and Visualize Data,
• Configure Dashboards in the Power BI Service.

Exam Code: 70-778
Exam Name: Microsoft Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI Exam
Exam Vendor: Microsoft
Version: 9.0

Question: 1 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.

A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.

You discover that a username User1 can access all the dashboards.

You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From the properties of each dashboard, you modify the Share settings.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

  

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.

A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.

You discover that a username User1 can access all the dashboards.

You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From the Power BI Admin portal, you modify the Dashboard settings.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

  

Question: 3

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.

A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.

You discover that a username User1 can access all the dashboards.

You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From Microsoft Azure Active Directory, you remove the Power BI license from User1.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A   

  

Question: 4 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contain four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.

The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].

You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate]. You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create a calculated table. You create a measure that uses the new table.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

Question: 5 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contain four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.

The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].

You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate]. You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create two copies of the Date table named ShipDate and OrderDateGet. You create a measure that uses the new tables.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

Question: 6 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contains four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.

The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]

Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].

You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate]. You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create measures that use the CALCULATE, COUNT, and FILTER DAX functions.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A   

Question: 7 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales have a column named CustomerID. The Data type of CustomerID is the Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain numeric values.

You need to ensure that numeric values in the CustomerID column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerID column and click Remove Errors.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

Question: 8

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales have a column named CustomerID. The Data type of CustomerID is the Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain numeric values.

You need to ensure that numeric values in the CustomerID column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerID column and click Replace Values…

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B   

Question: 9 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales have a column named CustomerID. The Data type of CustomerID is the Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain numeric values.

You need to ensure that numeric values in the CustomerID column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerID column and click Replace Errors.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A   

Question: 10 

Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start with the repeated scenario

You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the Exhibit.)

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit).

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.

Product Subcategory [Subcategory] contains NULL values.

End of repeated scenario.

You implement the Power BI model.

You need to add a new column to the Product Subcategory table that uses the following formula.=if [Subcategory] =null then “NA” else [Subcategory]

Which command should you use in Query Editor?

A. Column From Examples

B. Custom Column

C. Invoke Custom Function

D. Conditional Column

Answer: D   

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Get Latest Amazon AWS-Certified-Advanced-Networking-Specialty Exam - 100% Success Guaranteed With Actual Exam Questions

The Amazon AWS Advanced Networking Specialty exam AWS-Certified-Advanced-Networking-Specialty is a 170-minute assessment with 90 questions. Likewise, the Amazon AWS-Certified-Advanced-Networking-Specialty Amazon Specialty certification exam verifies the candidate's acquaintance and core understanding with the Advanced Networking and Management and Hybrid Cloud Management. 170 exam is associated with the Amazon Specialty Certification. 170 Exam helps you to upgrade credential, as the content is aligned with the exam topics;

• Design, develop, and deploy cloud-based solutions using AWS,
• Implement core AWS services according to basic architecture best practices,
• Design and maintain network architecture for all AWS services.

Exam Code: AWS-Certified-Advanced-Networking-SpecialtyExam Name: Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ExamExam Vendor: AmazonVersion: 11.0

Question: 1

Considering your knowledge of both the OSI and TCP/IP models - select the following statement which you consider to NOT be true.

A. The TCP/IP Application layer maps to 2 of the OSI Layers

B. The top layer in the OSI model is named the Application layer

C. The TCP/IP Application layer maps to 3 of the OSI Layers

D. The top layer in the TCP/IP model is named the Application layer

Answer: A    

Explanation:

The OSI model is a 7 layered model. The TCP/IP model is a 4 layered model. The top layer in both models is called the Application layer. The TCP/IP Application layer maps to the top 3 OSI layers (Application, Presentation, and Session layers).

Question: 2

From the following options, select the answer that correctly describes the implementation of the HTTP protocol?

A. By definition, HTTP is a connection-less oriented protocol and therefore utilises TCP

B. By definition, HTTP is a connection orientated protocol and therefore utilises TCP

C. By definition, HTTP is a connection-less oriented protocol and therefore utilises UDP

D. By definition, HTTP can be configured to be either connection or connection-less oriented - by specifying the appropriate HTTP header.

Answer: B    

Explanation:

HTTP is a connection orientated protocol and therefore utilizes TCP

Question: 3

 

You have just provisioned a new VPC a with a CIDR block of 172.16.12.0/24. The entire CIDR block is fully utilized by subdividing it into 6 subnets, we will refer to these as Subnet1 through to Subnet6. The first 2 subnets (Subnet1 and Subnet2) are the same size. The last 4 subnets (Subnet3, Subnet4, Subnet5, Subnet6) are also the same size. Subnet5 is half the size of Subnet2. The address space as occupied by the first two subnets is contiguous, as is the address space occupied by the last 4 subnets. Within Subnet3 AWS reserves the address 172.16.12.129 for the VPC router. Select the correct IP address reserved by AWS for DNS in the Subnet2.?

A. 172.16.64.1

B. 172.16.64.65

C. 172.16.12.66

D. 172.16.12.64

Answer: C    

Explanation:

From the documentation above - we know AWS reserves the address x.x.x.1 for the VPC router, and x.x.x.2 for DNS from within each subnet. This question states that Subnet 3 reserves 172.16.12.130 for the VPC router. Given that we now know that the Subnet3 (the 1st of the last 4 Subnets) starts at 172.16.12.128 - then it must follow that Subnet2 ends at 172.16.12.127. From here we know we have 128 addresses that are halved evenly between Subnet1 and Subnet2 - 128/2 = 64 or /26 in CIDR form. Therefore it follows that the address reserved by AWS for DNS in the Subnet2 must be 172.16.12.66

Question: 4

Select the VPC Peering statement below that is NOT true?

A. VPC peering supports transitive peering relationships for IPv6 traffic but not IPv4

B. VPC peering can be performed between VPCs in different AWS accounts in the same region

C. TCP connections can be performed between peered VPCs

D. UDP connections can be performed between peered VPCs

Answer: A   

Explanation:

VPC peering supports transitive peering relationships for IPv4 and IPv6 traffic

Reference:

Question: 5

Select the answer/s that correctly state how Jumbo Frames work?

A. Jumbo Frames assist with application disk storage

B. Jumbo Frames can assist with application performance

C. Jumbo Frames are supported across Virtual Private Gateway connections

D. Jumbo Frames are enabled by increasing the MTU size to 9000 kilobytes

Answer: B    

Explanation:

We know by definition that Jumbo Frames support 9000 byte MTU - therefore Answer 1 is incorrect (the stated unit is kilobytes). Jumbo Frames is a data transmission unit configuration option - it does not change or alter anything related to security - therefore Answer 2 is incorrect. Answer 3 is correct - we can get improved application performance when used within appropriate scenarios. Jumbo Frames are not supported over VPG IPsec VPN connections - therefore Answer 4 is incorrect. Answer 5 is nonsensical - Jumbo Frames is a networking construct and has nothing to do with disk storage.

Question: 6

You are the AWS cloud architect and have been tasked with designing an appropriate subnetting design for your production VPC. Your production VPC requires secure communications back to the corporate private network. Quality of Service (QoS) is very important 24x7 for this particular connection, as real-time data is passed continually backwards and forwards between your on-prem bioinformatics enterprise application, and the number crunching servers deployed in the cloud. Any potential latency incurred on this connection will have a direct impact on the company's ability to attract investors and expansion into new markets. Select the correct network configuration that best facilitates your company's continued growth plans.?

A. Provision a Direct Connect connection - between your service provider's data center and the AWS region that your cloud computes resources exist in. Configure just a Private Virtual

Interface. As this is a Direct Connection, a Virtual Private Gateway is not required

B. Configure a site-to-site layer 2 software router using OpenVPN within your VPC and ensure that QoS enabled - this is a secure and cheap option

C. Configure a site-to-site layer 3 software router using OpenVPN within your VPC and ensure that QoS enabled - this is a secure and cheap option

D. Provision a Direct Connect connection - between your existing service provider's data center and the AWS region that your cloud computes resources exist in. Configure a Virtual Private Gateway and Private Virtual Interface

Answer: D    

Explanation:

Answers A, B, and C all rely on an Internet connection. An Internet connection cannot guarantee QoS and will be subject to performance fluctuations - therefore they are all incorrect options. The only difference between these options is whether a Virtual Private Gateway is required - the answer is yes and therefore the correct answer is D.

Question: 7

You are your company’s AWS cloud architect. You have created a VPC topology that consists of 3 VPCs. You have a centralised VPC (VPC-Shared) that provides shared services to the remaining 2 departmental dedicated VPCs (VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2). The centralised VPC is VPC peered to both of the departmental VPCs, that is a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPC-Dept1, and a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPC-Dept2. Select the correct option from the list below.

A. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag has been disabled.

B. Instances within VPC-Dept1 can communicate directly with instances in VPC-Shared, as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, and vice versa regardless of who initiates communication

C. All network communication remains blocked between all VPCs until the respective peering bi-directional communication flags are set to the appropriate setting that allows traffic to flow.

D. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag has been enabled.

Answer: B    

Explanation:

Answers A, C, and D are incorrect answers as they reference a non-existing setting - there is no such thing as a “default peering bi-directional communication flag”.

Question: 8

In your current role as the corporate network architect - you have decided to replace your existing hardware firewall appliances with a pair of Juniper SRX-Series Services Gateways. You have chosen these as AWS lists these as supportable devices for establishing IPsec connections. With this in mind, select the minimum set of options to ensure that you can establish IPsec connectivity between your on-premise private corporate network and your AWS hosted VPC. Select which option is NOT required

A. Initiate network connections from somewhere within your corporate network, this is required to bring the tunnels UP

B. Deploy a Customer Gateway within your corporate network

C. Deploy a Customer Gateway within your VPC

D. Deploy a Virtual Private Gateway within your VPC

Answer: B     

Explanation:

A customer gateway within the corporate network is NOT required.

The Customer Gateway (CGW) is a component that you deploy within the VPC that logically represents you VPN physical hardware’s perimeter public IP - therefore Answer C is required.

A Virtual Private Gateway (VPG) is the AWS VPN Concentrator endpoint - and is always a requirement that needs to be deployed in your VPC - therefore it must always be deployed - therefore Answer D is required

AWS only supports IPsec in Tunnel mode - therefore Answer A is required.

Question: 9

The IPsec protocol suite is made up of various components covering aspects such as confidentiality, encryption, and integrity. Select the correct statement below regarding the correct configuration options to ensure IPsec confidentiality:

A. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, MD5

B. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, DES, 3DES, AES

C. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA

D. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, MD5

E. The following protocols may be used to configure IPsec confidentiality, PSK, RSA

Answer: B     

Explanation:

Answer A is incorrect - as MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity)

Answer C is incorrect - as PSK is short for Pre-Shared Keys (key exchange) - and again MD5 is a hashing protocol (data integrity)

Answer D is incorrect - as both MD5 and SHA are hashing protocols (data integrity)

Answer E is incorrect - as both PSK and RSA are used for key exchanges

This leaves Answer B is the only correct IPsec configuration covering confidentiality. DES, 3DES, and AES are all encryption protocols.

Question: 10

Which of the following statements does not describe Jumbo Frames in an AWS VPC environment?

A. For instances that are collocated inside a placement group, jumbo frames help to achieve the maximum network throughput possible

B. Jumbo Frames are not supported for traffic that exits the Virtual Private Gateway

C. Jumbo Frames are not supported for traffic that exits the Internet Gateway

D. T2.micro instances do not support Jumbo Frames

Answer: D  

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Prepare Cisco 300-460 Exam - 100% Success Guaranteed With Actual Exam Questions

The Cisco Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure exam 300-460 is a 90-minute assessment with 107 questions. Likewise, the Cisco 300-460 Cisco Certified Network Professional Cloud certification exam verifies the candidate's acquaintance and core understanding with the Network Cloud. 90 exam is associated with the Cisco Certified Network Professional Cloud Certification. 90 Exam helps you to upgrade credential, as the content is aligned with the exam topics;

Exam Code: 300-460

Exam Name: Cisco Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud Infrastructure (CLDINF) Exam 

Exam Vendor: Cisco

Version: 9.0

Question: 1 

In which two ways can a cloud administrator dynamically increase a VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)

A. Add a new local storage disk on ESXi and restart VMFS service.

B. Expand the datastore to the extent.

C. Rescan all hosts to see the current storage and modify the extent.

D. Add an extent (LUN).

Answer: BD   

Question: 2 

Which three boot policies can be created for Cisco UCS Manager in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose three.)

A. VLAN boot

B. UEFI secure boot

C. iSCSI boot

D. NFS boot

E. SAN boot

F. FCOE boot

Answer: ACE   

Explanation:

Reference:

Various boot options are:

SAN Boot

LAN Boot

Local Disk Boot

Virtual Media Boot               

iSCSI Boot

  

Question: 3

During which process are Cisco UCS UUID, MAC, and WWPN identifiers allocated from the pool?

A. service profile instantiation

B. server boot time

C. service profile assignment to a server

D. service profile template creation

Answer: C   

Question: 4

A Cisco UCSM administrator is tasked with modifying the boot order in a service profile. Which option lists the steps required to accomplish this task?

A. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.

On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.

Click the service profile for which you want to change the boot order.

Click Boot Order Wizard to change the existing boot policy.

B. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.

On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.

Click the service profile for which you want to change the boot order.

Click Boot Security.

Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing policy.

C. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.

On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.

Click the service profile for which you want to change the boot order.

Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing boot policy.

D. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab.

On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles.

Click the service profile for which you want to change the boot order.

Click Boot Order and the Modify Boot Policy wizard displays.

Change the existing boot policy.

Answer: D   

Question: 5 

Which option lists the number of segments that are supported by VxLAN as standardized in RFC7348 and the number of bytes of overhead that is added to the original frame?

A. 1 million; 50

B. 16 million; 50

C. 1 million; 48

D. 16 million; 48

Answer: B   

Explanation: 

Question: 6

Which option lists the steps to configure a Cisco UCS B-Series server for jumbo frames and the Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. On the Servers tab, set CDP enabled under the vNIC interface.

Set the vHBA MTU to 9000.

Assign the network control policy to the vHBA.

B. On the Servers tab, create a network control policy with CDP enabled.

On the vNIC select the jumbo-frame checkbox.

Assign the network control policy to the vNIC.

C. On the LAN tab, create a network control policy with CDP enabled.

Create a vNIC with an MTU of 9000.

Assign the network control policy to the vNIC.

D. On the LAN tab, create a vHBA template with an MTU of 9216.

Select the CDP checkbox.

Assign the network control policy to the vHBA.

Answer: D   

Question: 7

 

With which three types of zoning can a Cisco UCS domain be configured? (Choose three.)

A. cloud-based Fibre Channel zoning

B. Cisco UCS local Fibre Channel zoning

C. hybrid-based Fibre Channel zoning

D. switch-based Fibre Channel zoning

E. no zoning

F. vBlock-based Fibre Channel zoning

Answer: BDE   

Question: 8

Which three statements about server pools are true? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco USC Director Displays only the managed servers in a server pool, but the size of the pool includes all servers.

B. Servers pools cannot be assigned to a Cisco USC Director group.

C. A given server can belong only to a specific server pool.

D. A server pool contains a set of servers that share the same attributes such as server type, amount of memory, local storage, type of CPU, or local drive configuration.

E. A server pool only includes servers from a specific chassis in the system.

F. If your system implements multi-tenancy through organizations, you can designate one or more server pools to be used by a specific organization.

Answer: ADF   

Question: 9 

A Cisco USC Director administrator is configuring his pod on the Physical > Compute Tab. Which three tabs are available under this menu? (Choose three.)

A. UCS Chassis

B. Datastore Capacity Report

C. CloudSense

D. Chargeback

E. Compute Servers

F. Computer Accounts

Answer: AEF   

Question: 10 

Which four options are required on a DCHP server to enable PXE boot? (Choose four.)

A. boot server hostname (TFTP server hostname or IP address)

B. subnet mask

C. DNS server

D. lease time

E. domain name

F. boot file name

G. router (Gateway)

Answer: ABCG   

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Get Ready to Prepare Oracle 1Z0-499 Exam - 100% Success Guaranteed With Actual Exam Questions

The Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance 2017 Implementation Essentials Exam exam 1Z0-499 is a minute assessment of 70 questions. Likewise, the Oracle 1Z0-499 Oracle Storage Administration certification exam verifies the candidate's acquaintance and core understanding with the exam is associated with the Oracle Storage Administration Certification. Exam helps you to upgrade credential, as the content is aligned with the exam.

Certification Code: 1Z0-499

Certification Title: Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance 2017 Implementation Essentials Exam, Oracle,70

About Exam:

Exam References:

Question: 1

An administrator wants to add an advanced statistic to a worksheet. How can the administrator make the statistic available?

A. Under Configuration > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

B. Under Status > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

C. No action is required. Advanced Statistics are enabled by default.

D. Under Configuration > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

Answer: A   

Explanation:

The Preferences view for enabling advanced Analytics, which will make many more statistics available.

Question: 2

A storage administrator wants to give an operator the authority to update system software. Which privilege should be assigned to the operator?

A. Hardware

B. System

C. Update

D. Services

E. Users

Answer: C   

Explanation:

TABLE, User Available Scopes

Question: 3 

With which option would you configure a storage pool to meet the requirement of the highest performance and high availability for random disk IOPS?

A. RAID-5

B. RAID-ZR

C. RAID-1

D. RAID-Z2

E. RAID-Z3

Answer: E   

Explanation:

Z3 is triple-disk failure protection within a multiple disk set, where stripe width var pool disk count.

Data is triple mirrored, yielding a very highly reliable and high-performing system (for example, storage for a critical database). This configuration is intended for situations in which maximum performance and availability are required. Compared with a two-way mirror, a three-way mirror adds additional IOPS per stored block and higher level protection against failures.

Question: 4

A storage administrator has completed initial configuration and is going to access the BUI. What should you do to access the BUI?

A. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.

B. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.

C. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:225.

D. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: http://ipaddress:215.

Answer: A   

Explanation:

The ZFSSA Browser User Interface (BUI) is the graphical tool for administration of the appliance. The BUI provides an intuitive environment for administration tasks, visualizing concepts, and analyzing performance data. The BUI provides an uncluttered environment for visualizing system behavior and identifying performance issues with the appliance.

Direct your browser to the system using either the IP address or hostname you assigned to the NET-0 The login screen appears.

References:

Question: 5 

Which two features are available when ZFS Storage Appliances are clustered?

A. A peer appliance can provide service while repairs are being performed.

B. Load balancing among multiple heads is allowed.

C. Clients are provided with a unified file system namespace across multiple appliances.

D. Rolling upgrade of software is allowed.

Answer: A,D   

Explanation:

As an alternative to incurring hours or days of downtime while the head is repaired, clustering allows a peer appliance to provide service while repair or replacement is performed.

Clusters support rolling upgrade of software, which can reduce the business disruption associated with migrating to newer software.

Question: 6 

What is the correct path to take a snapshot in a browser user interface (BUI)?

A. Shares > Projects

B. Configuration > Services

C. Maintenance > System

D. Status > Settings

E. Analytics > Datasets

Answer: A   

Explanation:

Taking a Snapshot (BUI)

Use the following procedure to take a manual snapshot of a filesystem, LUN, or project.

1. Go to the share or project you want to snapshot.

To take a snapshot of a filesystem, go to Shares > Shares.

To take a snapshot of a LUN, go to Shares > Shares and click LUNs.

To take a snapshot of a project, go to Shares > Projects.

Etc.

Question: 7 

A storage system has plenty of storage space available. Which storage profile should a storage administrator use when both high performance and high reliability are required?

A. double-parity RAID

B. striped

C. mirrored

D. single-parity RAID, narrow stripes

Answer: A   

Explanation:

RAID in which each stripe contains two parity disks. As with triple mirroring, this yields high availability, as data remains available with the failure of any two disks. Double parity RAID is a higher capacity option than the mirroring options and is intended either for high-throughput sequential-access workloads (such as backup) or for storing large amounts of data with low random-read component.

Note: Triple mirrored

Data is triple mirrored, yielding a very highly reliable and high-performing system (for example, storage for a critical database). This configuration is intended for situations in which maximum performance and availability are required. Compared with a two-way mirror, a three-way mirror adds additional IOPS per stored block and higher level protection against failures.

Question: 8 

Which four are key attributes to set up a ZFS Storage Appliance for Microsoft Exchange?

A. serial number of ZFS storage appliance

B. read/write SSD configured

C. RAID1

D. block size 4k

E. iSCSI protocol

Answer: A,B,C,E   

Explanation:

B: The transactional log and database elements of ZFS send synchronous writes that require acknowledgment from persistent media. For this reason, Write Flash Acceleration SSDs greatly improve the write performance of the ZFS Storage Appliance.

E: The implementation of Exchange 2010 and 2007 on the Sun ZFS Storage 7420 can use both iSCSI and Fibre Channel target modes.

Question: 9 

Which three actions are performed to maintain data availability?

A. Software services are set to manually restart in case of software failure.

B. A set of rolling snapshots of two preceding software installs is maintained during software upgrades.

C. A set of rolling snapshots of preceding software installs is maintained during software upgrades.

D. The appliance configuration is backed up and exported.

E. Solaris Live Upgrade is used to minimize software updates and upgrades.

F. Software services are automatically restarted in case of software failure.

Answer: C,D,F   

Explanation:

C: The majority of new features and bug fixes introduced in a system update are backward-compatible and allow you to roll back to previous updates without issue. These are applied automatically by the storage management software.

D: The configuration backup function enables the administrator to backup the appliance configuration, consisting of system metadata only (such as the network configuration, local users and roles, service settings, and other appliance metadata).

F: To maximize the availability of your data in production, the ZFSSA includes a complete end-to-end architecture for data integrity, including redundancies at every level of the stack. Key features include the following:

Question: 10 

Which four actions must you perform to access Active Directory (AD) in order to create appropriate authentication permissions?

A. Enter the details of a domain administrator who has the authority to allow the Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance to join Active Directory (AD).

B. Enter the object class mappings for posixAccount and shadowAccount.

C. From the Configuration > Services > Active Directory page, click the Join Domain button.

D. Ensure that the clocks on the Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance and Windows Active Directory (AD) domain controllers are synchronized.

E. Ensure that the Domain Name Server (DNS) configuration refers to the same DNS server as the Active Directory servers.

Answer: A,C,D,E

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